Monday, March 23, 2015

John 17:5

Question: I've read 100 pages of the Amazing Aims and Claims of Jesus, and it is all very interesting, but I would like to know your explanation of John 17:5 which suggests that Jesus was alive before the world began. I look forward to hearing from you.
Jon

Answer:
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was."
This verse is interpreted by Trinitarians to mean that literally Jesus existed "before the world was." However, did he literally exist as a person or in God's foreknowledge, "in the mind of God?"  Jesus did not literally exist except in the mind and plan of God the Father.  We can compare this to an architect who can give details of a plan for his building he has designed before one stone is laid on the actual construction site.  In the same way, God the Father, the Architect had a divine plan.  Christ was "the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world (Rev. 13:8).

God had a plan concerning the Messiah way before his birth where Trinitarian belief would have us believe that Jesus was praying about glory he had with God as though he literally existed before his birth.

Trinitarians fail to see that when Jesus was praying, he was also praying in verses 20-22 for his disciples and future disciples who do not yet exist, but yet Jesus has given future disciple, past tense, this same glory.
"And I have given them the glory which You have given me, that they may be one, even as we are one."
If John 17:5 is to mean that Jesus literally existed before the world was, then all the disciples at the time and future disciples existed before the world was, before they were born, but Trinitarians ignore their own inconsistencies of interpretation.

Jesus was not yet glorified (John 7:39) but is simply praying about his future glorification as if he currently has it.  Jesus was glorified when God raised him from the dead. 
Luke 24:26 says, "Was it not necessary for the Christ to suffer these things and to enter into His glory?"

Acts 3:13 says, "The God of Abraham and of Isaac and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, has glorified His son Jesus, whom you delivered up, denying Him in the presence of Pilate, when he had decided to let Him go."

1 Corinthians 15:41-45, "There are also heavenly bodies and earthly bodies, but the glory of the heavenly is one, and the glory of the earthly is another.  There is one glory of the sun, and another glory of the moon, and another glory of the stars; for star differs from star in glorySo also is the resurrection of the dead.  It is sown a perishable body, it is raised an imperishable body; it is sown in dishonor, it is raised in glory; it is sown in weakness, it is raised in power; it is sown a natural body, it is raised a spiritual body.  If there is a natural body, there is also a spiritual body.  So also it is written, "The first man Adam became a living soul," the last Adam life-giving spirit.


1 John 5:7 and Hebrews 1:8

Question: I am a minister  (Grace christian church) and my basis for believing trinity is 1John 5:7. This verse does not say one God in three persons but it speaks of the unity of the three: The Father, The Son & Holy spirit. Aside from this, Hebrews 1:8 we find the Father calling the Son: thy throne O God....What is your comments on these verses

PB Tanierla (Philippines)

Answer:  Hellp PB, 

Concerning 1 John 5:7, the Greek manuscripts were corrupted much later by a false insertion about the Father, word and spirit.  Though it appeared in the 1611 King James Bible, it has been rejected as a forgery by every modern translation.  It is now regarded as universally false.  You might want to listen to this audio as well concerning the verse and how it came to be inserted.

http://www.dividingword.net/Trinity/Audios/Steve%20Katsaras%20--%201%20John%205.7.mp3

As far as Hebrews 1:8, the text in Hebrews is showing us how Jesus is superior to the angels.  If we are talking about God Almighty, the Father, this should not even be a point worthy of discussion for obvious reasons.

To be the Son of God means that you are not God!  No one in biblical times thought that God could be born!  (Luke 2:11), much less that God could die (Rom. 5:10).  

As Sean Finnegan has well stated concerning the comparison of passages:

Psalm speaks of the Davidic king's marriage to a foreign princess from Tyre.  The court poet sings of God's choice of a king, of his role in establishing God's rule, and of his splendor as he waits for his bring.  The psalmist calls this king (perhaps Solomon) God because he represents God as God's agent to rule over God's people.  The king is not called God in an ultimate sense because, as God, he has a God (see Psalm 45:7 or Hebrews 1:9).  So, this Psalm is being applied to Jesus in Hebrews 1:8-9 in order to make the point that he is superior to the angels because he is God's representative to rule as an anointed one.  Besides, if one concluded that Hebrews 1:8 means that Jesus is God, then the Davidic King of Psalm 45:6 is also God, which would make a "Quadity" rather than a Trinity.
See also: "Does Jesus Have a God?"