It’s amazing how people who adhere to Trinitarian
and Arian doctrines actually believe that Jesus is the Angel of the Lord, the
Angel of YAHWEH in the Old Testament (OT)!
However, Jesus could not be the Angel of the Lord in
the OT:
1. Because
he is a human being NOT an angelic being
2. And
as such he was not even conceived/begotten yet at the time of the OT
So … Jesus cannot be an/the ‘Angel of the Lord’
Now when I speak of an ‘angel’ I am speaking of the non-human kind i.e. the host of heaven … angelic beings. (Hence, I am not speaking of human messengers; since, in scripture the words angel and messenger are the same Hebrew/Greek word. So my context is angelic beings!)
Now when I speak of an ‘angel’ I am speaking of the non-human kind i.e. the host of heaven … angelic beings. (Hence, I am not speaking of human messengers; since, in scripture the words angel and messenger are the same Hebrew/Greek word. So my context is angelic beings!)
Now if Jesus was an Angel of the LORD he could not
qualify to be God’s Only-Begotten Son! Why? Because GOD said so, and it appears
that the Early Church including the writer of Hebrews were fully aware of this
fact and had no concept that Jesus was at anytime, an angelic being!
(Heb 1:4-7)
Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance
obtained a more excellent name than they. For unto which of the angels said he
at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will
be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son? And again, when he bringeth in the first begotten
into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him. And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his
angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.
(Heb 1:13)
But to which of the angels said he at any time, Sit on my right hand,
until I make thine enemies thy footstool?
(Heb 2:5-9)
For unto the angels hath he not put in subjection the world to come,
whereof we speak. But one in a certain place testified, saying, What is man,
that thou art mindful of him? or the son of man, that thou visitest him? Thou
madest him a little lower than the angels; thou crownedst him with glory and
honour, and didst set him over the works of thy hands: Thou hast put all things
in subjection under his feet. For in that he put all in subjection under him,
he left nothing that is not put under him. But now we see not yet all things
put under him. But we see Jesus, who was
made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with
glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
The writer of Hebrew is obviously refuting
‘angel-christology’ which appears was prevalent at his time; he is refuting it
using the strongest possible terms. He is showing that Jesus the Messiah, GOD’s
Son, was NOT an angelic being at any time! How much clearer could the writer
make his point? The questions in Heb. 1:5, 13; are NOT rhetorical questions. The
answer therefore is:- TO NONE OF THE ANGELS, DID GOD AT ANYTIME SAY …
Thus, Jesus the Messiah, GOD’s only-begotten human
son was NOT and is NOT an angelic being at anytime!
GOD never ever intended the world to come [Heb 2.5]
to be put in subjection under any angel. It was always the will of GOD that the
world be put under subjection to human beings, not angelic beings hence the
terms, ‘man and son of man’.
In chapter 2, the writer of Hebrews is equating
Jesus, the risen Jesus, as a bona fide human being, a man, a son of man, and
not an angelic being.
Stephen [Acts 7] and Paul [Gal 3.19; cp. Heb 2.2]
were fully aware of the OT and they stated that what spoke to the patriarchs
were ‘angels’, angelic beings, plain and simple. They never equate Jesus as an OT angel …
never!
There is simply no verse which equates the Messiah
with the OT Angel of the LORD. No not one.
Therefore, in the OT, via what the Jews call, the law of agency, GOD spoke and acted via/through His angels. Note the following:
· (Acts
7:30) And when forty years were expired,
there appeared to him in the wilderness of mount Sina an angel of the Lord in a
flame of fire in a bush.
· (Acts 7:35)
This Moses whom they refused, saying, Who made thee a ruler and a judge?
the same did God send to be a ruler and a deliverer by the hand of the angel
which appeared to him in the bush.
· (Acts
7:38) This is he, that was in the church
in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the mount Sina, and with
our fathers: who received the lively oracles to give unto us:
· (Acts
7:52-53) Which of the prophets have not
your fathers persecuted? and they have slain them which showed before of the
coming of the Just One; of whom ye have been now the betrayers and murderers:
Who have received the law by the disposition of angels, and have not kept it.
· (Acts
7:55-56) But he, being full of the Holy
Ghost, looked up stedfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of God, and Jesus
standing on the right hand of God, And
said, Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of man standing on the
right hand of God.
Stephen mentions the well-known facts that it was
‘angels’ that appeared and spoke to the patriarchs, GOD working through them.
He finally begins to speak of the Messiah in verse
52ff … he never says that it was the Messiah who spoke to the patriarchs;
rather, Stephen states that it was Stephen’s audience who were the betrayers
and murderers of the Messiah in NT times, i.e., in their time! He does not
depict the Messiah in OT times but rather depicts the Coming of the Messiah in
their NT time! Not only did the Messiah come, but his audience was instrumental
in his death!
And finally, if GOD had spoken through His Son in OT
times via any means, the following verses would not make sense …
(Heb 1:1-2)
God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto
the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his
Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the
worlds; (Compare: (1 Pet 1:20) Who
verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in
these last times for you, )
You see! GOD did NOT speak via His Son in time past
(simply because His Son was NOT conceived/begotten yet!)
It wasn’t until Jesus came into being … until he was
begotten … in the fulness of time, in these last days that GOD had an only-begotten
Son to speak TO US through!
Rather, GOD’s Son was foreordained even in OT times.
He did not exist in OT times. He did not exist until he was conceived/begotten
like every other human being.
Jesus was and ever will be a human being.
Jesus was and ever will be a human being.
He was never at any time, an angelic being!
For those who believe the Angel of the Lord is Jesus
-
If Jesus is ‘the Angel of the Lord’
then who is the Angel of the Lord??
then who is the Angel of the Lord??
Example …
(Mat 1:20-21)
But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph,
thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. And she shall bring forth a son, and thou
shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
(Mat 2:13)
And when they were departed, behold, the angel of the Lord appeareth to Joseph in a dream, saying,
Arise, and take the young child and his
mother, and flee into Egypt, and be thou there until I bring thee word: for
Herod will seek the young child to destroy him.
(Mat 2:19-20)
But when Herod was dead, behold, an angel
of the Lord appeareth in a dream to Joseph in Egypt, Saying, Arise, and take the young child and his mother,
and go into the land of Israel: for they are dead which sought the young
child’s life.
(Mat 28:2-7)
And, behold, there was a great earthquake: for the angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled back
the stone from the door, and sat upon it. … And the angel answered and said unto the
women, Fear not ye: for I know that ye
seek Jesus, which was crucified. He is not here: for he is risen … And go
quickly, and tell his disciples that he is risen from the dead; and, behold, he
goeth before you into Galilee; there shall ye see him: lo, I have told you.
(Luke 2:9-11)
And, lo, the angel of the Lord came
upon them, and the glory of the Lord shone round about them: and they were sore
afraid. And the angel said unto them, Fear not: for, behold, I bring you good
tidings of great joy, which shall be to all people. For unto you is born this
day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord.
Do you see my point?
Now a little history …
The so-called church fathers were Hellenistic-minded
believers who ‘lost the art’ of reading the Scriptures with a Hebraic
mindset. Justin Martyr was the first to
call Jesus, ‘the Second God’; and also remember he was ‘a philosopher turned
“Christian” ‘!! That is, his mind was steeped in Greek Platonism and
philosophy. Remember Col 2.8!
Justin Martyr as well as the church fathers of his
era, tried to marry their Greek philosophy with the Hebrew Scriptures with
disastrous results. It was these men who introduced the Platonic notion of ‘the immortality of the soul’ and with this
notion introduced the concept that Jesus the Messiah pre-existed as a personal
being known as‘[God] the Logos’ who was alongside GOD before the foundation of
the world.
Like I said, this notion of ‘literal pre-existence’
of the Messiah was based on their Hellenistic, Platonic philosophy. Here is an account where Justin Martyr one of
the earliest proponent of this notion, was trying to convince Trypho the Jew,
of this:
CHAPTER XLVIII [48] — BEFORE THE DIVINITY OF CHRIST
IS PROVED, HE [TRYPHO] DEMANDS THAT IT BE SETTLED THAT HE IS CHRIST.
Quote
And Trypho said, “We have heard what you think of
these matters. Resume the discourse where you left off, and bring it to an end.
For some of it appears to me to be paradoxical, and wholly incapable of proof.
For when you say that this Christ existed as God before the ages, then that He
submitted to be born and become man, yet that He is not man of man, this
[assertion] appears to me to be not merely paradoxical, but also foolish.“And I
replied [Justin] to this, “I know that the statement does appear to be
paradoxical, especially to those of your race, who are ever unwilling to
understand or to perform the [requirements] of God, but [ready to perform]
those of your teachers, as God Himself declares. Now assuredly, Trypho,” I continued,”
[the proof] that this man is the Christ of God does not fail, though I be unable
to prove that He existed formerly as Son of the Maker of all things, being God,
and was born a man by the Virgin. But since I have certainly proved that this
man is the Christ of God, whoever He be, even if I do not prove that He
pre-existed, and submitted to be born a man of like passions with us, having a
body, according to the Father’s will; in this last matter alone is it just to
say that I have erred, and not to deny that He is the Christ, though it should
appear that He was born man of men, and [nothing more] is proved [than this],
that He has become Christ by election. For there are some, my friends,” I said,
“of our race, who admit that He is Christ, while holding Him to be man of men;
with whom I do not agree, nor would I, even though most of those who have [now]
the same opinions as myself should say so; since we were enjoined by Christ
Himself to put no faith in human doctrines, but in those proclaimed by the blessed
prophets and taught by Himself.” (Taken
from: Dialogue of Trypho, Chapter 48 )
So, Justin Martyr could not prove that Jesus
pre-existed his birth! Justin also points out (as history proves) that it was
the majority position among Christians of that time, that Jesus the Christ of
GOD, was born man of men. Thus he did not pre-exist as someone or something
else.
Sadly, this philosophical, Platonic notion of ‘a
literal pre-existence of a Logos-being‘ gained ground among the Hellenistic
Christians, and we have the situation that we have today.
However, we have no need to depend upon ‘the
so-called church fathers’ for proof … we simply need to go back to the
Scriptures.
Jesus in John 5.46-47 was speaking of Deut 18:15-19;
both disciples and believers alike perceived that Jesus of Nazareth was ‘That
Prophet’ [e.g. John 4.19,29,42-44; 6.14, 7.40, Acts 3.22ff, 7.37, etc]. Neither Jesus nor any of his apostles
identified the Messiah as the Angel of the LORD. And neither in any of the
Jewish apocryphal writings do they ever identify the Messiah as the Angel of
the Lord.
Thus, in closing …
For there is one God, and one mediator between God
and men, the man Christ Jesus.(1 Tim 2:5)
Thanks to Adam Pastor
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